Yes they do.

If you want the most accurate english translation of the Hebrew Torah/Tanach get the Tanach from ArtScroll Mesorah Publications.

It has the Hebrew on one side and the english on the other, and you can compare very easy and see all the mistranslations that are in any Christian Bible OT.

After a great deal of comparative sampling, I recommend the Artscroll/Stone edition, it has the translation which in my opinion is the closest English approximation to the original Hebrew (some things are untranslatable).

Well, as you may know, the Scriptures do not differ in the sense that the King James Version (KJV) includes all of the Scriptures also included in Hebrew bibles.

However – naturally – no two translations are alike. The KJV differs in translation details from every other version of the bible, including Hebrew bibles (which, quite naturally, differ from each other in the same way).

Perhaps the best no-cost resource is this
the classic English translation. There is a new JPS Tanakh – for sale only – that is generally considered the best scholarly translation currently available in English.

Jim,

Absolutely yes! The ‘King James’ versiion is called that because King James himself commissioned this new version of Bible in use at the time to suit his personal, spiritual and political goals. There are thousands of mistakes and mistranslations in the King James version, as well as false interpretations.

Any book of the Old Testament (simply called ‘The Bible’ by people of the Hebrew faith) that is not an officially sanctioned version by various boards of rabbis and scholars, has been changed from the original Bible used by Jesus himself.

We know that the Hebrew Bible in use today (which is available in English) is EXACTLY the same as the one used by Jesus because of The Dead Sea Scrolls,

The Dead Sea Scrolls are actually millions of fragments of parchment, as well as hundreds of whole scrolls found sealed in jars in 11caves along the northwest shore of the Dead Sea between the years 1947 and 1956. (The area is 13 miles east of Jerusalem)

The Dead Sea Scrolls date back to the time of Jesus — 2000 years ago — and hundreds of years before him! And since Jesus was a Jew, this is the Bible version he would have used.

Meanwhile, when these bits of parchment were reconstructed into their whole manuscripts, they turned out to be an EXACT copy of the Bible in use today by the Jews.

This discovery helps to back up the claim made by the Jewish people that the first 5 books of their Bible — called Torah — is EXACTLY as it was when given to Moses and all his people by God on Mount Sinai. The Bible books after the 5th one, Deuterotomy, were written by humans and came after the time of Moses. However, these too, are backed up by The Dead Sea Scrolls.

Furthermore, when Torah Scrolls are written today by special scribes, it is Jewish law that not a single letter or punctuation mark be changed. If a mistake is made it must be so perfectly corrected that it is impossible to tell there was ever a correction. If a correction cannot be made, then the entire Torah Scroll must be buried.

These rules regarding the creation of Torah Scrolls has kept the Hebrew Bible EXACTLY the same over thousands of years. (The reason a Torah Scroll must be buried is that it is forbidden to ‘destroy’ the name of God, as burning the scroll would surely do.)

In contrast, the King James version of the Bible didn’t merely alter the original Bible, it altered an already altered version of the Bible!

So if you want to study what Jesus studied, use the Jewish Bible.

The entire text of the Hebrew (Jewish) Bible is available online and in English at:

Jewish are Aramaic and Hebrew.

King James is English (it is the best English translation).

my answer: Yes, they do.

Zechariah 12:10 − The Hebrew Tanakh: “and they shall look upon me whom they have stabbed/ thrust through [with swords”) The King James Version of Zechariah changes one word [stabbed] to “pierced.”

Isaiah 7:14 − The Hebrew Tanakh says “Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman (alma) is with child, and she will bear a son and she shall call his name Immanuel.” **Take note, this was written in the present tense. But the Greek Septuagint changed “alma,” saying “Behold, a virgin shall be with child and shall bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” (Matthew 1:22-23). The church changed the entire verse from present to FUTURE tense and then went further to change the Hebrew alma, meaning a young woman to virgin.

Isaiah 53:10 − The Hebrew Tanakh says “And the Lord wished to crush him, He made him ill; if his soul makes itself restitution (acknowledge guilt) he shall see children, he shall prolong his days and God’s purpose shall prosper in his hand.” But the KJV says:: “Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he had put him to grief: when thou shall make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand”

and more
Thanks to PW

Of course it is. The king James version is so badly messed up that you would have to go back to the original script just to get some of the meaning.

They are the same thing.Any differences would be very minor, just from translation methods. I have a Masoretic text (Jewish OT) and I am just as happy with that as the KJV.

Of course they do. The KJV has over 3500 mistakes.

No.